Experienced Level Clinical Pathology Interview Questions

Advanced Experienced Level Clinical Pathology Interview Questions and Answers

1. What is a “gene expression signature” for a tumor?

A collection of genes that are expressed consistently higher or lower in the tumor than is the population norm for non-tumorous tissue of the same type.

2. What are the benefits of high-throughput expression analysis in molecular biological investigations?

These techniques allow simultaneous analysis of the expression of many genes. Patterns of increased or decreased expression is associated with disease may then be identified and may contribute to improved diagnosis and prognosis.

Advanced Experienced Level Clinical Pathology Interview Questions and Answers
Advanced Experienced Level Clinical Pathology Interview Questions and Answers

3. To what 2 aspects of a usability assessment should the word “representative” apply?

(1) Representative tasks
(2) Representative users

4. Dr Jones is a pathologist who has recently developed a virtual microscope program for teenagers to use while they are hospitalized. He thinks that teens might use this program to learn more about their illness and the role that pathology plays in the hospital. He has heard that usability is important, so he asks a few of his colleagues to try the program out in their free time and to e-mail their comments to him. Describe 3 specific things that Dr Jones should have done differently in order; to more appropriately assess the usability of his program.

(1) Have teens test the program, not physicians;

(2) select specific representative tasks for the assessment (not just “try the program out”); and

(3) observe the participants using the program and have them think aloud during the session rather than e-mail comments.

5. There are about 40 000 human genes and ESTs (expressed sequence tags) available on the Affymetrix Gene Chips for gene expression. Make some reasonable assumptions and estimate, for a normal organ, the number of genes that will appear to be expressed significantly greater than or less than the population norm (95% confidence interval).

If we assume that each gene is independent and occurs in a normally distributed population, then one might expect approximately 5% of 40 000 or 2000 genes to appear over expressed or under expressed.

6. In ionizing radiation, cells in G1 phase of the cell cycle are most sensitive?

False

7. In ionizing radiation, mitosis does not occur in irradiated cells?

False

8. In ionizing radiation, cells experiencing hypoxia are vulnerable to radiation damage?

False

9. In ionizing radiation granulation tissue, formation is delayed in wounds, which have been radiated?

True

10. In ionizing radiation, undifferentiated tumors are usually more sensitive to radiation than differentiated tumors.

True

11. Early suture removal does not affect the granulomatous response.

False

12. Monocytes clean the debris left by phagocytes.

True

13. The epidermal and dermal epithelia grow downwards along the suture track.

True

14. Fibroblasts have a contractile function, which helps to produce a small scar.

True

15. The wound site becomes vascular as time passes.

False

16. Gangrene refers to tissue necrosis with or without infection.
False

17. Acute inflammation usually occurs around necrotic tissues.
True

18. Apoptosis does not usually cause inflammation.
True

19. Autolytic changes in the nucleus are pathognomonic of necrosis.
True

20. The blood vessels surrounding an acutely inflamed site usually show progressive vasodilatation from the time of injury.
False

21. With regard to cell growth, ionizing radiation can cause atrophy.
True

22. With regard to cell growth, hypocalcaemia can lead to enlargement of the parathyroid gland.
True

23. With regard to cell growth, the main stimulus for hypertrophy is hormonal
False

24. With regard to cell growth, in metaplasia, there is a change of a type of differentiated cell to a type of undifferentiated cell
False

25. With regard to cell growth, achondroplasia does not affect membranous bone
True

26. During wound healing, the inflammation is greater for catgut than nylon
True

27. During wound healing, with absorbable suture, the wound strength decreases from the time of suturing.
True

28. During wound healing, in scurvy the wound is weak due to increased activity of collagenase.
False

29. During wound healing, in infected wound collagen lysis is increase.
True

30. During wound healing, during collagen synthesis, lysine and proline are directly incorporated into the collagen molecules.
False

31. Atherosclerosis occurs in the retinal artery.
False

32. In atherosclerosis, foamy macrophages are seen in type I plaque.
False

33. In atherosclerosis, thinning of the intima is a feature.
False

34. In atherosclerosis, proliferation of smooth muscle cells in the intima is typical.
True

35. In atherosclerosis, raised HDL is associated with atherosclerosis.
False

36. Protein C deficiency may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
True

37. Excess protein S may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
False

38. Antithrombin III deficiency may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
True

39. Atrial fibrillation may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
False

40. Factor V Leiden mutation may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
True

41. In cerebral infarction, the area of infarct tends to be wedge-shaped.
True

42. Cerebral infarction can result from thrombosis of the external carotid artery disease.
False

43. In cerebral infarction, coagulative necrosis occurs in the brain tissue.
False

44. In cerebral infarction, cortical blindness can result from infarction of the anterior cerebral artery.
False

45. In cerebral infarction, the necrotic tissue is eventually replaced by Schwann cells.
False

46. Phthsical eye can give rise to metastatic calcification.
False

47. Sarcoidosis can give rise to metastatic calcification.
True

48. Renal failure can give rise to metastatic calcification.
True

49. Pulmonary tuberculosis can give rise to metastatic calcification.
False

50. Multiple myeloma can give rise to metastatic calcification.
True

51. In the presence of inflammation, platelets are raised.
True

52. In the presence of inflammation, ferritins are raised.
True

53. In the presence of inflammation, caeruloplasmin are raised.
True

54. In the presence of inflammation, fibrinogens are raised.
True

55. In the presence of inflammation, complement proteins are raised.
True

56. Hyperplasia results in increased cell size.
True

57. Hyperplasia results in increased cell numbers.
True

58. Hyperplasia occurs in corneal endothelium.
False

59. Hyperplasia occurs in retinal pigment epithelium.
True

60. Hyperplasia occurs in myocardium.
False

61. Amyloid occurs in chronic inflammatory disorders.
True

62. Amyloid occurs in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
True

63. Amyloid is a basophilic substance, which can be stained with Congo red.
False

64. Amyloid weakens the walls of blood vessels.
True

65. Amyloid causes renal failure.
True

66. Hamartoma is usually present at birth.
True

67. Hamartoma contains cells from all three germ layers.
False

68. Hamartoma does not predispose to malignancy.
True

69. Hamartoma contains metaplastic cell types.
False

70. Aadenoma sebaceum seen in tuberous sclerosis is a type of hamartoma.
True

71. Solar keratosis predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
True

72. Bowens disease predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
True

73. Chronic eczema predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
False

74. Chronic ulceration predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
True

75. Keratoacanthoma predispose the squamous cell carcinoma.
False

76. In sickle cell disease, the disorder is a single gene disorder.
True

77. In sickle cell disease, carrier has normal blood test.
False

78. In sickle cell disease, the abnormality involves the alpha chain of the globin molecule.
False

79. In sickle cell disease, there is absence of HbA.
True

80. In sickle cell disease, sickle cell crisis does not affect carrier of the disease.
False

81. Bowens disease causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
True

82. Solar keratosis causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
True

83. Aacanthosis nigricans causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
False

84. Squamous papilloma causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
False

85. Keratoacanthoma causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
False

86. Keratoacanthoma is also called molluscum sebaceum.
True

87. Keratoacanthoma usually remits spontaneously without leaving scar.
False

88. Keratoacanthoma is caused by a poxvirus.
False

89. In Keratoacanthoma, central necrosis is uncommon.
False

90. Keratoacanthoma is histologically difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma.
True

91. Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in patients taking brufen.
True

92. Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in thalassaemia.
False

93. Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in sickle cell disease?
False

94. Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in Christmas disease?
True

95. Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in von Willebrands disease.
True

96. Berry aneurysm is most often found in the circle of Willis.
True

97. Berry aneurysms result from atheroma.
False

98. Berry aneurysms are associated with diabetes mellitus.
False

99. Berry aneurysms are associated with polycystic renal disease.
True

100. In corneal transplantation in the UK, whole eye is kept in the culture medium in the eye bank.
False


Post a Comment

Previous Post Next Post